A. No treatment
B. Pulpectomy
C. Resection of jaw
D. None of the above
Related Mcqs:
- A six year old child patient has blue-dome shaped swelling in posterior mandibular region, what will be the treatment plan?
A. Reassure the patient without any treatment
B. Excise the lesion
C. Marsupialization
D. Surgical Excision - Standard treatment of ameloblastoma:
A. Segmental resection with 1 cm of normal bone
B. Enbloc resection
C. Enucleation
D. Enucleation with cauterization - Chemotherapy can be successful during treatment of_____________?
A. Ameloblastoma
B. Leukemia
C. Fibrosarcoma
D. Basal cell carcinoma - Biopsy of a clinically suspicious lesion is negative. The most appropriate treatment is_______________?
A. Tell patient no malignancy
B. Repeat the biopsy
C. Observe the patient for twelve months
D. Observe the patient for three months - Numbness of lip seen with no previous dental treatment ______________?
A. Meta static carcinoma
B. Central nervous system lesion
C. Osteomyelitis
D. Infection - Treatment for verrucous carcinoma is_______________?
A. Surgery + radiotherapy
B. Excision
C. Laser technique
D. Alpha (a) interferon - The treatment for a child with cherubism is______________?
A. surgical excision
B. cosmetic surgery after puberty
C. radiation
D. Enbloc dissection - Corticosteroids are useful in treatment of TMJ arthritis because they have_____________?
A. An analgesic effects
B. An anti-inflammatory effect
C. Inhibitory effect on synovial membrane
D. Analgesic and anti-inflammatory effect - For the treatment of case of class III dog bite, all of the following are correct except_____________?
A. Give inmunoglobulins for passive immunity
B. Give ARV
C. Immediately stitch wound under antibiotic coverage
D. Immediately wash wound with soap and water - The drug for choice for treatment of infection involving non-penicillinase producing staphylococcus is______________?
A. Ampicillin
B. Erythromycin
C. Penicilling G
D. Methicillin sodium
